Death before the age of accountability

Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by AndThisGospel, Jan 14, 2017.

  1. AndThisGospel Member

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    BTW, if you read the context, David sinned by numbering Israel. That's why He confessed to God:

    2 Sam 24:10 Now David’s heart troubled him after he had numbered the people. So David said to the LORD, “I have sinned greatly in what I have done. But now, O LORD, please take away the sin of Your servant, for I have acted very foolishly.”
     
  2. StefanM Well-Known Member
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    "Author of sin" terminology is just from the Westminster Confession and doesn't matter.

    What the Bible substantiates is a matter of interpretation.
     
  3. Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    There
    Thereis no chance/fate with God, as He is always in sovereign control over all events!
     
  4. AndThisGospel Member

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    Did God actually cause David to sin? "He (God) moved David . . . to . . . number Israel and Judah (2 Sam. "24:2). It seems so, or was God merely assuming the blame for David's sinning? I say the latter.

    You see if God had not created Lucifer then David wouldn't have sinned because 1] David wouldn't have had a sin nature and 2] there wouldn't have been a devil to tempt him. So God assumes the blame as if He had David number Israel.

     
  5. Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    No risk, as only God in ultimate sense has full free will!
     
  6. Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Disobedience to the will of God
     
  7. AndThisGospel Member

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    No, the Bible can explain itself as long as one doesn't go outside it....
     
  8. Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    And they both freely chose to sin, and theLord was still in sovereign control!
     
  9. AndThisGospel Member

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    What's the will of God? That we reflect His agape love, right? Instead our humanity reflects a u-turn agape....The essence of sin is "the love of self".
     
  10. AndThisGospel Member

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    Yes, He is sovereign, but He didn't desire that they sin. They sinned because they had free-wills.
     
  11. AndThisGospel Member

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    Who really caused David to sin?

    "Now Satan stood up against Israel and moved David to number Israel" (1 Chron. 21:1)
     
  12. Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Adam had morally perfect nature when he chose to sin...
     
  13. Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    God choosed and deterned to us their Falls fo His greater glory, corect?
    As the Cross of Christ was already in mind of God, as part o fHis divine Plan, so that greater good would in the end come out of even their Falsl?
     
  14. StefanM Well-Known Member
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    The very act of reading the Bible is interpretive. Trying to figure out what the words mean is interpretive. Trying to understand how the words relate to other words in the text is interpretive.

    That's the case with any written document, and the Bible is no exception. It's just rather challenging to do, as it is a collection of documents from different time periods, written by different authors with different backgrounds.

    Case in point: what does the Bible mean by "faith"? James and Paul use the same word differently. So we have to interpret even if we never leave the text.
     
  15. StefanM Well-Known Member
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    Either God directed Satan, or the passages are simply contradictory.
     
  16. AndThisGospel Member

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    No & No
     
  17. StefanM Well-Known Member
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    Why's that? The Bible explicitly mentions both God and Satan doing the same thing.
     
  18. AndThisGospel Member

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    The bible refers to Adam's fall as the mystery of iniquity.
     
  19. AndThisGospel Member

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    I gave you the answer already
     
  20. StefanM Well-Known Member
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    You actually didn't. You just referred to the Chronicles passage.

    Either both God and Satan are involved, or there is a contradiction in the text.