Question for KJVOs"like me" can we translate from.....

You said he only gave His word once. He gave those words twice. I can think of one other example:

Jer 36:32 Then took Jeremiah another roll, and gave it to Baruch the scribe, the son of Neriah; who wrote therein from the mouth of Jeremiah all the words of the book which Jehoiakim king of Judah had burned in the fire: and there were added besides unto them many like words.

So God is not barred from restoring His word at any time, is He? </font>[/QUOTE]Okay, understand now. So do you contend that God gave His Word again in 1611 (or 1762, or 1769, etc) in the same way He gave it through the original human writers?

 

azguitar said:

ransom [sic] do you speak spanish [sic] well?

No, I have no use for Spanish. If you are planning on lecturing me, come back when you've gained a competency in your first language.

 

It is sad that people turn to personal attacks when they have no basis to defend a point from.
The word EXZACKALY WAS SPELLED THAT WAY FOR A REASON. NOTICE THAT I GOT MY POINT ACROSS.

 

rANSOM REAd up as to why ...

 

must get fooooood.......see yall laters

 

It is sad that people turn to personal attacks when they have no basis to defend a point from.

It is sad that slavish devotion to a theological error about the translation and transmission of the Scriptures turns so many armchair quarterbacks into experts on translation and textual criticism.

 

My point is, if you are going to assume the role of instructor here, you need to learn to express yourself in an articulate manner. It appears to many here that your poor command of English disqualifies you as an instructor in languages. If this is an example of your linguistic skills you have no merit in asking others if they speak Spanish.

The point remains - Did God reinspire His Word in 1611 (or 1762, or 1769, etc) in such a way to give it equal authority as His original writings? If so, which version and edition do we choose?

 

Both of you are mistaking my need for haste and inability to type as a lack of knowledge regarding the language in question. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------so many armchair quarterbacks into experts on translation and textual criticism.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------I believe and know that anyone who claims to know that we can not translate into Spanish without knowing Spanish themselves is an armchair quarterback.

 

Can you answer this question which is more in keeping with the thread please?

 

You said he only gave His word once. He gave those words twice. I can think of one other example:

Jer 36:32 Then took Jeremiah another roll, and gave it to Baruch the scribe, the son of Neriah; who wrote therein from the mouth of Jeremiah all the words of the book which Jehoiakim king of Judah had burned in the fire: and there were added besides unto them many like words.

So God is not barred from restoring His word at any time, is He? </font>[/QUOTE]Okay, understand now. So do you contend that God gave His Word again in 1611 (or 1762, or 1769, etc) in the same way He gave it through the original human writers? </font>[/QUOTE]I'm not contending anything at this time, just keeping us honest But I see no good reason why God could not do just that.

 

Is this the "McVey" translation you keep talking about guitar?

http://faculty.bbc.edu/rdecker/sub/rey_jaime.htm

 

You said he only gave His word once. He gave those words twice. I can think of one other example:

Jer 36:32 Then took Jeremiah another roll, and gave it to Baruch the scribe, the son of Neriah; who wrote therein from the mouth of Jeremiah all the words of the book which Jehoiakim king of Judah had burned in the fire: and there were added besides unto them many like words.

So God is not barred from restoring His word at any time, is He? </font>[/QUOTE]Okay, understand now. So do you contend that God gave His Word again in 1611 (or 1762, or 1769, etc) in the same way He gave it through the original human writers? </font>[/QUOTE]I'm not contending anything at this time, just keeping us honest But I see no good reason why God could not do just that. </font>[/QUOTE]Would we not need some sort of Biblical evidence to support such an action?

 

No, that is a critics view-point of the Translation.

 

azguitarist said;

But the article is about the same translation?

 

azguitarist said:

Both of you are mistaking my need for haste and inability to type as a lack of knowledge regarding the language in question.

OK, then instead of incompetent, you are sloppy, inattentive to detail, and apathetic to your inability to communicate effectively. So you don't know how you come across or don't care, but either way your credibility in this issue has been shot.

many armchair quarterbacks into experts on translation and textual criticism.

believe and know that anyone who claims to know that we can not translate into Spanish without knowing Spanish themselves is an armchair quarterback.

Case in point. I haven't a clue what you're trying to say in the above "sentence." (Perhaps this may help you with that.) I know only that it doesn't resemble any argument I've tried to make up to now.

 

Another well thought out, articulate, reasoned response.

Excellent post.

Now, could you please tell us which edition of the KJV is perfectly perfect enough to base all other translations on?

 

Read the post, you did the same thing I did.

You did not copy and paste the whole thing.

See? lol Its ok, this is the net. As far as you stating that my credibility is shot you can take your foot out of your mouth now.

 

Or out of your hand... I never claimed to know how to type nor do I care to learn at this instant..