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We have infallible b ible, again, NO doctrines or practice is affected, do you think any version is perfect then?
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Perfect for what?
That is the question at the heart of our argument.
Yeshua1
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Thayer, like Dr George Winer, of the 3 NT Greek grammars, allowed his theology to influence his word definitions in his lexicon, many being quite subtle, and almost convincing to the untrained mind!
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What wrong think did Thayer and Winer advance though, as Thayer seemed to give what the Greek stated, even if he might not have agreed with it!
Yeshua1
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We have a perfect God, not a perfect Bible!
Yeshua1
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For what Paul stated the scriptures were profitable for!
Yeshua1
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Yeshua1
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You may.
I have a perfect Bible BECAUSE I have a perfect God.
How do you know?
Paul may have never really said that....you don't have the originals.
That's why I asked perfect FOR WHAT?
I may not have a perfect translation, but I do have God's perfect and inspired Word.
I am so sorry that you don't.
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Have you got Thayer and Winer
Yeshua1
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Have read them in the past, do not have either one today
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I have Thayer and the 3 by Winer and there is no doubt that both are anti Trinity. Regardless of what anyone says on here about Thayer I know firsthand
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Yeshua1
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Not really
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One can translate off the Critical GT, or Majority, or the TR and have still word of God into English
Yeshua1
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were they good ?
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They are but as always we need the Holy Spirit to guide us
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So which reading will be the Word of God in 1 Timothy 3 .16 and 1 John 5 . 7
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Six hour warning -
This thread will close no sooner than
1230 AM (Tue) EST /
930 pm (Mon) PST
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Oh no. Things are getting interesting
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How can you have the Word of God uninspired by God?
Doesn't "word" in Word of God signify that it is comes from God and not man?
rlvaughn
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We veering further and further from the OP, but I would be interested for you to define your words:
Inerrant
Inspired
Infallible
What do you mean by each of these? Thanks.