THE WESTMINSTER CONFESSION OF FAITH (1646)
"Our first parents, begin seduced by the subtlety and temptations of Satan, sinned in eating the forbidden fruit. This their sin God was pleased, according to his wise and holy counsel, to permit, having purposed to order it to his own glory." (Chapter 6)
So, it PLEASED God to permit Adam and Eve to sin against Him by disobeying Him, and then He punishes them!
God "ORDERED" that they sinned!!!
"Pleased" = "Feeling or showing pleasure and satisfaction, especially at an event or a situation" (Oxford Dictionary)
The meaning of "please" in 1586 was, "to be agreeable, to give pleasure". Which would have been the meaning at the time this Confession was made!
This is PERVERSE! This is CALVINISM!
Westminster Confession Of Faith And The Fall Of Man
Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by AndyMartin, May 27, 2017.
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Your comprehension is poor, which is partly responsible for your bigotry.
God chose not to destroy Adam and Eve instantly. God had a plan to display grace. He started that act of grace with Adam and Eve.
Somehow by your twisted pretzel logic, you end up despising the acknowledgement of grace expressed in the Confession.
Please, Andy, get a clue before posting. -
Please READ what it actually written and not what you THINK!
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I read the confession. Your take on it is not what the Confession is saying. You're wasting people's time with your foolishness.
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no one asked you to view/comment! :Biggrin:rolleyes:
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When we read what was actually written and compare it to what you claim, we can see that you are either wrong or deceitful. You claim:
But it actually says that God permitted them to sin.
So, the Westminster Divines say that God permitted them to sin, indicating He allowed them to do what they wanted to do.
You change that to God ordering them to sin.
Either you lack the reading comprehension displayed by my youngest grandson (aged 8) or you are deliberately deceitful. I prayerfully hope it is the former. :( -
It is in ENGLISH!
"God was pleased"
"to permit, having purposed to order it" -
<Sigh> It is in Early Modern English of the 1600s.
Pleased
Plēzd
Adjective
(Archaic) willing to do something.
:rolleyes::rolleyes::rolleyes: -
give the source
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"happy and satisfied"
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You are aware that word meaning (etymology) and word usage (philology) has changed since the 1600s, are you not?
It is silly to try to apply 21st century meanings to words used in a 17th century document.
In the 17th century the word "pleased" meant "willing."
And once again you have publicly displayed your lack of understanding of the issue you are trying to discuss.
And still have not answered any of my questions. Still dodging and weaving and throwing up a smoke screen? -
2.2it pleases", "pleased", etc., "someone to do somethingdated It is someone's choice to do something.
‘instead of attending the meeting, it pleased him to go off hunting’
please - definition of please in English | Oxford Dictionaries -
The primary source book for the English Language, the Oxford English Dictionary.
pleased - definition of pleased in English | Oxford Dictionaries -
I do know. Show me an example from a dictionary that says this? So the word "ordered" also changed? Not according to my Oxford English dictionary that shows no such change
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Yes, read:
"Feeling or showing pleasure and satisfaction, especially at an event or a situation"
"Willing or glad to do something"
willing - definition of willing in English | Oxford Dictionaries
don't fudge it! -
Since this is the Baptist Board, let me quote from the 1689 Second London Baptist Confession of Faith, 6:1:
It does say "God was pleased, according to his wise and holy counsel to permit, having purposed it to his own glory". No where does it say that God was pleased with sin itself. To say otherwise is to be purposefully obtuse. We see this in Gen. 50:20 when Joseph said to his brothers, "As for you, you meant evil against me, but God meant it for good in order to bring about this present result, to preserve many people alive." God was pleased with the final outcome of the evil (sin) that Joseph's brothers committed, not the sin itself. In James 1, James writes to encourage his readers about the trials and persecutions they faced. Many of these trials were undoubtedly caused by sin. James was not happy with the sin, but the blessings that came in spite of the sin. The book of Job is another example. Job's wife supposed that Job was cursed by God (probably because of his sin), and he should curse God and die (Job 2:9). There are more passages I can cite, but something tells me that they will fall on deaf ears of those who have already closed them. -
"pleased, according to his wise and holy counsel, to permit, having purposed to order it"
Not only "pleased", but also "ordered". This is talking of the fall of man, not God using sin after it entered the world! -
God allowed them to do their "free will" thing, and he also had purposed and ordained that there would be something glorious come out from it, namely, the Cross of Christ, and Him one day forever dealing with problems of Evil and sin!
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