An example of the above is how you have redefined, or as they say today 'reimagined' Acts 13:48.
Words have Meaning
Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Van, Oct 23, 2021.
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RipponRedeaux Well-Known Member
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If I were in charge, every one of them would be deleted as off topic addressing the poster and not the topic violations of forum decorum.
We are saved through or by reason of faith, therefore we come to our faith based on God's revelation, before God chooses us for salvation. Only a liberal would attempt to redefine some many words in so many places... -
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Galatians 3:26 For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus.
How did we become children of God? Through or by reason of faith in Christ Jesus.
Once again a liberal would rewrite the verse to say we became children of God and then were given faith. Not how it reads... -
RipponRedeaux Well-Known Member
The elect are not born as children of God. They are unsaved, unregenerate etc. But when God grants faith to an individual, that person is made alive, the Holy Spirit is put inside. That person has become a Child of God. -
SavedByGrace Well-Known Member
The primary use and meaning of the Greek preposition ἐν, is NOT "instrument or by means of"; but "IN". The correct preposition to show "by means of", the the genitive form of "διά". Like all prepositions in Greek, they can have varied uses. But, just because someone does not use ἐν, as "instrument", does NOT make them a liberal! You say, "However, anyone who can read a lexicon knows that claim is false", and then go on to quote from Geroge Winer's Greek Grammar. Do you know that there is a HUGE difference between a lecixon, and grammar? Also, read Winer again, and you will clearly see that he does NOT limit the use of ἐν, as you quote him to say! I have 3 of his Greek grammars, and do not agree with your statement. -
SavedByGrace Well-Known Member
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1) Did anyone say the "primary" of dia is instrumentality? Nope so an effort to create a strawman to knock down. What a joke.
2) Did anyone say "dia" could only be used to show instrumentality? Nope, so yet another strawman.
3) Does someone claiming "dia" is not used to show instrumentality a liberal? You bet, as it is an effort to redefine the word and alter its meaning.
4) I quoted a lexicon, which reference George Winer, so I was not claiming anything about grammar.
5) I did not "limit the use of "dia"- but a liberal Calvinist did. -
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SavedByGrace Well-Known Member
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Instead we get a blizzard of obfuscation posts. Count them up. :) -
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SavedByGrace Well-Known Member
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SavedByGrace Well-Known Member
"of the instrument or means by or with which anything is accomplished, owing to the influence of the Hebrew preposition בְּ much more common in the sacred writers than in secular authors. (cf. Winers Grammar, § 48, a. 3 d.; Buttmann, 181 (157) and 329 (283f), where we say with, by means of, by (through);with the dative, where the simple dative of the instrument might have been used, especially in the Revelation..."of things relating to the soul, as ἐν ἁγιασμῷ, 2 Thessalonians 2:13 (Winer's Grammar, 417 (388));"
Both Philip Butmann and George Winer, are Greek GRAMMARS, and NOT lexicons! so WHO is the Greek lexicon that you refer to? -
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SavedByGrace Well-Known Member
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